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Mathématiques

The Gambler's Fallacy: Why a Coin Has No Memory

Ten heads in a row does not make tails more likely - the eleventh flip is still 1/2. Why the intuition feels right, and the cases where past results do inform.

Réponse courte

What is the gambler's fallacy?

It is the belief that a run of one outcome makes the opposite outcome more likely next time. For independent events it is false: after ten heads, the probability of tails on the eleventh flip is still 1/2.

La réponse en bref

The gambler's fallacy is the belief that past results change the chances of a future independent event - that after a run of heads, tails is somehow due. It is false. A fair coin has no memory of what it did before, so the probability of heads on the next flip is 1/2 however the run has gone.

Ce qui change la réponse

  • The events have to be genuinely independent: cards drawn without replacement are not, and a deck really does remember what has left it.
  • The mechanism has to be known to be fair. Where it is not, a long run is evidence about the mechanism rather than a prediction about the next trial.
  • Physical objects change. A chipped die, a bent coin or a worn machine can drift, and past results then carry information about the object even though they carry none about chance.

The coin after ten heads

A fair coin has landed heads ten times running. What is the probability that the next flip is heads?

One half. It was one half before the run started and the coin has learned nothing since. The gambler's fallacy is the answer that tails is now more likely because it is due; the hot-hand version is the answer that heads is now more likely because the coin is on a streak. Both are wrong, and both are wrong for the same reason.

The number that feels as though it ought to matter is real, but it answers a different question. Asked before any flipping, the probability of eleven heads in a row is one in 2,048, which is genuinely tiny. But ten of those flips have already happened. The improbable part is behind you, and the only uncertainty left in front of you is a single flip.

The arithmetic that settles it

Conditional probability makes the point exactly rather than by assertion. Divide the probability of eleven heads by the probability of the ten that have already happened, and what is left is the probability of the next one.

The last line in the list is the one that does the most work. HHHHHHHHHHT and HHHHHHHHHHH are equally unlikely, both at one in 2,048, and so is every other specific sequence of eleven flips. Runs look special because we notice them, not because they are rarer than the shapeless sequences nobody remarks on.

  • P(eleven heads in a row) = (1/2)¹¹ = 1/2048
  • P(ten heads in a row) = (1/2)¹⁰ = 1/1024
  • P(head on flip 11, given ten heads already) = (1/2048) ÷ (1/1024) = 1/2
  • P(ten heads then a tail) = 1/2048 as well - exactly as unlikely as eleven heads

The long run corrects by dilution, not by repayment

There is a real theorem hiding behind the fallacy, which is why the intuition is so stubborn. Over a large number of flips, the proportion of heads does settle towards a half. Students hear that and conclude a surplus of heads must be paid back by a surplus of tails.

It is never paid back. It is swamped. Suppose after 20 flips you have 15 heads and 5 tails - ten ahead, a proportion of 0.75. Flip 980 more times and get roughly 490 of each. You now have 505 heads out of 1,000. You are still exactly ten ahead in absolute terms, and nothing has compensated for anything, but the proportion has fallen to 0.505.

That is the whole content of the law of large numbers as it applies here, and putting it this way removes the fallacy at the root. The average moves because more data arrives and drowns the early excess, not because the past gets corrected. Nothing is keeping score.

When the past genuinely does tell you something

The fallacy is not the claim that past results never matter. It is the claim that they matter for independent events. There are three situations on the syllabus where they matter a great deal, and telling them apart from the coin is the skill the exam is testing.

The question that separates them is short: could this trial have changed the situation for the next one? Removing a counter from a bag changes it. Flipping a coin does not. Where the answer is yes, the probabilities on the next branch of the tree are different, and where it is no, they are identical - which is exactly what a probability tree makes visible.

  • Without replacement. Draw a red counter from a bag of 3 red and 5 blue and the bag now holds 2 red and 5 blue, so the probability of red has fallen from 3/8 to 2/7. Different probabilities on the second set of branches are the visible signature of dependence.
  • Unknown fairness. A coin landing heads 90 times in 100 is not due for tails - it is probably not a fair coin. Relative frequency, successes divided by trials, is how a probability is estimated when it cannot be calculated theoretically, and more trials make the estimate better.
  • Physical change. Dice chip, spinners bend, machines wear. Where the mechanism itself can alter, past results are evidence about the mechanism even though they say nothing about chance.

Questions fréquentes

If I have not won the lottery in ten years, am I due a win?

No. Each draw is independent, and the odds this week are what they were the first week. What ten years of losing does tell you is what the odds have been all along - which is the one genuinely informative thing in the situation.

Is the hot hand the same fallacy?

It is the same error with the sign reversed - expecting a run to continue rather than to reverse. For coins, dice and roulette wheels there is no hot hand, because the trials are independent. In sports it remains a live argument, since a player is not a coin and skill, fatigue and defence are all real.

Does the gambler's fallacy come up in GCSE maths?

Yes, in the work on independent events and relative frequency. Questions of this shape appear on GCSE and IGCSE papers: a run of results is described and you are asked to comment on what happens next. The answer is that the trials are independent, so the probability is unchanged, and the mark is for the reason.

What is the difference between independent and mutually exclusive events?

Independent means one event does not change the probability of the other, so P(A and B) = P(A) × P(B). Mutually exclusive means they cannot both happen at once, so P(A or B) = P(A) + P(B). Two events that are mutually exclusive and both possible are never independent, which is a favourite exam trap.

If the coin is fair, why did I get ten heads in a row?

Because events with a probability of one in 1,024 happen roughly once in every 1,024 attempts, and a great many attempts get made. Put a thousand people in a hall and ask each to flip ten times, and you should expect about one of them to see ten heads. That person's coin is not special.

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